Question Simulator

AS & A Level Biology (9700)

Inherited change Banker

62 questions · about 7% of the marks we indexed · examined in 9 of 9 sessions.

Questions by year

2026

  • 2026 May/June · Paper 41 · Q5 (a, b(i), b(ii), b(iii))11 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Meiosis & genetic variation
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 41 · Q8 (a(ii))3 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 42 · Q2 (b(i), b(ii), c)6 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 42 · Q5 (a, b, c)9 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 43 · Q2 (a, b, c)9 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 43 · Q5 (a, b, c)10 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 44 · Q1 (a, b, c, d)8 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2026 May/June · Paper 44 · Q7 (a)4 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)

2025

  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q1 (a(i), a(ii), b, c)9 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q4 (a)3 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q106 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q2 (a, b)8 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q3 (a(i), a(ii))5 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q1 (a(i), a(ii), b, c)9 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q4 (a)3 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q106 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 44 · Q2 (a)4 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2025 Oct/Nov · Paper 44 · Q5 (a, b, c)12 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 41 · Q3 (a, b)5 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 42 · Q3 (a(i), a(ii), c(ii))9 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 42 · Q4 (a, b, c(i), c(ii))8 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 43 · Q3 (a, b)9 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 44 · Q2 (a, b, c, d)14 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 44 · Q4 (b)3 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 44 · Q5 (b(ii))1 markControl of gene expression
  • 2025 May/June · Paper 53 · Q1 (a(i), a(ii), a(iii), b)13 marksSkill: hypotheses & predictions · Skill: planning a method · Skill: risk assessment · Skill: statistics (SD, SE, CI, t-test, Spearman, chi-squared)

2024

  • 2024 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q5 (a, b, c)8 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2024 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q10 (a, b, c(i), c(ii))8 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q4 (a, b)6 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q5 (a, b, c)8 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2024 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q10 (a, b, c(i), c(ii))8 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 41 · Q3 (c)1 markOfficial paper ↗Control of gene expression
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 41 · Q6 (a(i), a(ii), b)8 marksOfficial paper ↗Control of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Meiosis & genetic variation
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 42 · Q3 (a, b, c, d(i), d(ii), d(iii))11 marksChi-squared test · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 42 · Q4 (a, b, c)11 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 43 · Q1 (e)2 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 43 · Q2 (c)3 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 43 · Q3 (a(i), a(ii), a(iii), a(iv), b)12 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2024 May/June · Paper 43 · Q5 (a)1 markMeiosis & genetic variation

2023

  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q6 (a(i), a(ii), a(iii), b)11 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Meiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q8 (b(ii), b(iii))4 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q2 (a, b, c)12 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q5 (a, b, c)9 marksChi-squared test · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q6 (a(i), a(ii), a(iii), b)11 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Meiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q8 (b(ii), b(iii))4 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 41 · Q6 (a(i), a(ii), b, c(i), c(ii), c(iii))13 marksChi-squared test · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Meiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 41 · Q84 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 41 · Q106 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 42 · Q2 (a, b, c)7 marksMeiosis & genetic variation
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 43 · Q3 (a(i), a(ii), b)10 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 43 · Q5 (a, b, c, d, e)13 marksChi-squared test · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2023 May/June · Paper 43 · Q9 (a(ii))1 markControl of gene expression

2022

  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q6 (c(ii))2 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 41 · Q7 (a, b)8 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q6 (a(i), a(ii), a(iii), a(iv), b(i), b(ii))13 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 42 · Q7 (a, b, c)10 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q6 (c(ii))2 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2022 Oct/Nov · Paper 43 · Q7 (a, b)8 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2022 May/June · Paper 41 · Q7 (a, b, c)8 marksGenetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2022 May/June · Paper 42 · Q1 (a(i), a(iii), b)7 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)
  • 2022 May/June · Paper 42 · Q7 (a, b(i), b(ii), c)9 marksControl of gene expression
  • 2022 May/June · Paper 43 · Q7 (a, b, c)11 marksControl of gene expression · Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis)

References only, not question text. Open Official paper ↗ where Cambridge publishes the paper, or see the official Cambridge past-papers page; for other papers, ask your school. “Paper 42” means Paper 4, variant 2.

Practice questions

Original questions written by HomiLabs in the style of the exam, with answers and mark schemes. They are not Cambridge past paper questions and have not been reviewed by Cambridge. Try each one before opening the answer.

Q1Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Core · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

In a species of flowering plant grown in a research garden in Faisalabad, the allele for purple flowers, F, is dominant to the allele for white flowers, f.

  1. (a) Explain what is meant by the terms 'dominant' and 'homozygous'. [2]
  2. (b) A purple-flowered plant of unknown genotype is crossed with a white-flowered plant. Use genetic diagrams to show how the offspring would show the genotype of the purple-flowered plant. [4]
Show answer
  1. (a) Dominant: an allele that is expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote (whenever it is present). Homozygous: having two identical alleles of a gene (at the same locus on a pair of homologous chromosomes).
    B1 each.
  2. (b) Test cross with ff. If FF × ff: gametes F and f; all offspring Ff, purple. If Ff × ff: gametes F, f and f; offspring Ff : ff = 1 purple : 1 white. Any white offspring shows the parent is Ff; all purple (in a large sample) suggests FF.
    B1 key to alleles and parental genotypes; B1 gametes; B1 offspring genotypes and phenotypes for both crosses; B1 conclusion linking ratio to genotype.
Q2Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Core · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

The ABO blood group gene has three alleles: Iᴬ and Iᴮ are codominant and both are dominant to Iᴼ. In a family in Peshawar, the father has blood group A and the mother has blood group B. Their first child has blood group O.

  1. (a) State the genotypes of the father and the mother. Explain how you know. [2]
  2. (b) Draw a genetic diagram to show the possible blood groups of their children and state the probability that their next child has blood group AB. [3]
  3. (c) Explain why blood group AB shows codominance. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Father IᴬIᴼ; mother IᴮIᴼ; the group O child is IᴼIᴼ, so must have received an Iᴼ from each parent.
    B1 both genotypes; B1 reason.
  2. (b) Gametes: Iᴬ, Iᴼ and Iᴮ, Iᴼ. Offspring: IᴬIᴮ (AB), IᴬIᴼ (A), IᴮIᴼ (B), IᴼIᴼ (O) in 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. Probability AB = 1/4 (0.25).
    B1 gametes; B1 four genotypes with phenotypes; B1 1/4.
  3. (c) Both alleles are expressed in the heterozygote: both antigen A and antigen B are present on the red cells.
    B1.
Q3Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Core · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

In shorthorn cattle, the allele Cᴿ gives red hair and the allele Cᵂ gives white hair. Heterozygous cattle, CᴿCᵂ, are roan: they have a mixture of red hairs and white hairs.

  1. (a) Explain why this is an example of codominance. [1]
  2. (b) A farmer crossed roan bulls with roan cows and 24 calves were born. Draw a genetic diagram and state the expected numbers of red, roan and white calves. [4]
Show answer
  1. (a) Both alleles are expressed in the heterozygote – red and white hairs are both present.
    B1.
  2. (b) Gametes Cᴿ, Cᵂ from each parent; offspring CᴿCᴿ red : CᴿCᵂ roan : CᵂCᵂ white = 1 : 2 : 1; expected 6 red, 12 roan, 6 white.
    B1 parental genotypes and gametes; B1 offspring genotypes; B1 phenotypes/1 : 2 : 1; A1 6, 12, 6.
Q4Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Standard · Paper 4 style · 7 marks

Haemophilia A is caused by a recessive allele, Xʰ, of a gene on the X chromosome. A woman whose father had haemophilia marries a man without haemophilia. Neither of them has haemophilia.

  1. (a) State the genotypes of the woman and the man. [1]
  2. (b) Draw a genetic diagram to show the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their children. [3]
  3. (c) Calculate (i) the probability that a son of this couple has haemophilia, and (ii) the probability that any child of this couple will be a son with haemophilia. [2]
  4. (d) Explain why haemophilia is much more common in males than in females. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Woman XᴴXʰ (carrier – she inherited Xʰ from her father); man XᴴY.
    B1 both.
  2. (b) Gametes: Xᴴ, Xʰ (mother); Xᴴ, Y (father). Children: XᴴXᴴ unaffected female; XᴴXʰ carrier female; XᴴY unaffected male; XʰY male with haemophilia.
    B1 gametes including Y; B1 four genotypes; B1 phenotypes.
  3. (c) (i) 1/2; (ii) 1/4
    B1 1/2 (half of sons); B1 1/4 (one of four equally likely children).
  4. (d) Males have only one X chromosome, so one recessive allele causes the condition (no second allele to mask it); females need two copies.
    B1.
Q5Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Standard · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

In a species of tomato, red fruit (R) is dominant to yellow fruit (r) and tall stem (T) is dominant to dwarf stem (t). The two genes are on different chromosomes. Two plants heterozygous for both genes were crossed and 320 offspring were produced.

  1. (a) State the genotypes of the gametes that each parent can produce, and explain why there are four types. [2]
  2. (b) Calculate the expected numbers of each phenotype among the 320 offspring. [3]
Show answer
  1. (a) RT, Rt, rT, rt; the genes are on different chromosomes, so they assort independently in meiosis (metaphase I/anaphase I), giving four combinations in equal numbers.
    B1 four gametes; B1 independent assortment.
  2. (b) red tall 180; red dwarf 60; yellow tall 60; yellow dwarf 20
    M1 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio; M1 320 ÷ 16 = 20 per sixteenth; A1 all four numbers.
Q6Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

In summer squash, fruit colour is controlled by two genes on different chromosomes. A dominant allele W prevents any pigment forming, so the fruit is white. In ww plants, allele Y (dominant) gives yellow fruit and yy gives green fruit.

  1. (a) Give the phenotypes of plants with genotypes WwYy, wwYy and wwyy. [1]
  2. (b) Two WwYy plants are crossed and 160 plants are grown from the seeds. Calculate the expected number of white, yellow and green plants. Show your reasoning. [3]
  3. (c) Explain how this cross differs from the 9 : 3 : 4 ratio seen in Labrador coat colour. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) WwYy white; wwYy yellow; wwyy green.
    B1 all three.
  2. (b) white 120; yellow 30; green 10
    M1 W_ _ _ = 12/16 white; wwY_ = 3/16 yellow; wwyy = 1/16 green; M1 160 ÷ 16 = 10; A1 120, 30, 10.
  3. (c) Here the epistatic allele is dominant (one W masks the other gene), giving 12 : 3 : 1; in Labradors the epistatic allele is recessive (ee needed to mask), giving 9 : 3 : 4.
    B1 dominant vs recessive epistasis; B1 ratios linked.
Q7Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Standard · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

Coat colour in rabbits is controlled by one gene with four alleles. In order of dominance: C (full colour) > cᶜʰ (chinchilla, silver-grey) > cʰ (Himalayan, white with dark extremities) > c (albino).

  1. (a) A chinchilla rabbit with genotype cᶜʰc is crossed with a Himalayan rabbit with genotype cʰc. Draw a genetic diagram to show the expected genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring, and state the phenotypic ratio. [4]
  2. (b) State the number of different genotypes possible for this gene in the rabbit population. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Gametes cᶜʰ, c and cʰ, c. Offspring: cᶜʰcʰ chinchilla; cᶜʰc chinchilla; cʰc Himalayan; cc albino. Ratio 2 chinchilla : 1 Himalayan : 1 albino.
    B1 gametes; B1 four genotypes; B1 phenotypes; A1 ratio 2 : 1 : 1.
  2. (b) 10
    B1 4 homozygotes + 6 heterozygotes = 10.
Q8Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

In domestic cats, a gene on the X chromosome controls orange or black fur. Xᴼ gives orange fur and Xᴮ gives black fur. The alleles are codominant: a female XᴼXᴮ is tortoiseshell (patches of orange and black).

  1. (a) A tortoiseshell female is mated with a black male. Draw a genetic diagram to show the phenotypes of the kittens and their sexes. [3]
  2. (b) State the probability that a kitten from this cross is tortoiseshell. [1]
  3. (c) Explain why tortoiseshell cats are almost always female. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) XᴼXᴮ × XᴮY; gametes Xᴼ, Xᴮ and Xᴮ, Y; kittens: XᴼXᴮ tortoiseshell female; XᴮXᴮ black female; XᴼY orange male; XᴮY black male.
    B1 parental genotypes and gametes; B1 offspring genotypes; B1 phenotypes with sexes.
  2. (b) 1/4
    B1.
  3. (c) Tortoiseshell needs both Xᴼ and Xᴮ, so two X chromosomes are needed; males (XY) have only one X chromosome so can be only orange or black (rare XXY males can be tortoiseshell).
    B1 needs two X chromosomes/both alleles; B1 males XY have one X.
Q9Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

In a cereal plant, the allele for coloured grain (C) is dominant to colourless grain (c), and the allele for smooth grain (S) is dominant to wrinkled grain (s). A plant heterozygous for both genes, CcSs, which had received C and S from one parent and c and s from the other, was crossed with a plant with colourless, wrinkled grains. Offspring: coloured smooth 86; colourless wrinkled 82; coloured wrinkled 17; colourless smooth 15.

  1. (a) State the ratio of phenotypes expected if the two genes assorted independently. [1]
  2. (b) Explain why the results differ from this ratio. [3]
  3. (c) Calculate the percentage of offspring that are recombinants. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
    B1.
  2. (b) The genes are linked – on the same chromosome (close together); C and S, and c and s, tend to be inherited together, so parental phenotypes (coloured smooth, colourless wrinkled) are most common; the small numbers of coloured wrinkled and colourless smooth are recombinants produced by crossing over between the loci in prophase I.
    B1 linkage/same chromosome; B1 parental combinations inherited together; B1 recombinants from crossing over (chiasmata).
  3. (c) 16 %
    B1 (17 + 15) ÷ 200 × 100 = 16 %.
Q10Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 7 marks

Coat colour in Labrador retriever dogs is controlled by two genes on different chromosomes. Gene B/b: B gives black pigment, b gives chocolate (brown) pigment. Gene E/e: at least one E allele allows pigment to be deposited in the hair; ee dogs are yellow whatever their B/b alleles.

  1. (a) Name this type of gene interaction and explain why. [2]
  2. (b) Two black dogs, both BbEe, are mated many times. Use a genetic diagram to show the expected phenotypic ratio of their puppies. [4]
  3. (c) Over several litters the dogs had 64 puppies. Calculate the expected number of yellow puppies. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Epistasis (recessive epistasis); the homozygous recessive ee genotype at one locus masks the expression of the B/b gene at another locus.
    B1 epistasis; B1 ee masks/prevents expression of B/b.
  2. (b) Gametes: BE, Be, bE, be from each parent. 16 combinations: B_E_ 9 black; bbE_ 3 chocolate; B_ee 3 yellow and bbee 1 yellow, so 9 black : 3 chocolate : 4 yellow.
    B1 gametes; B1 Punnett square/16 genotypes; B1 genotypes linked to phenotypes; A1 9 : 3 : 4.
  3. (c) 16
    B1 64 × 4/16 = 16.
Q11Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

In the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster, white eyes are caused by a recessive allele, Xʷ, on the X chromosome (red eyes Xᵂ). Vestigial wings are caused by a recessive allele, v, of a gene on an autosome (normal wings V). A red-eyed female with normal wings, genotype XᵂXʷ Vv, is crossed with a white-eyed male with normal wings, genotype XʷY Vv.

  1. (a) Calculate the probability that an offspring fly will be white-eyed with vestigial wings. Show your working. [3]
  2. (b) 400 offspring were counted. Calculate the expected number of white-eyed flies with vestigial wings, and the expected number of these that are female. [2]
  3. (c) Explain why a male fly cannot pass the Xʷ allele to his sons. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) 1/8
    M1 P(white eyes) = 1/2 (XʷXʷ or XʷY from XᵂXʷ × XʷY); M1 P(vv) = 1/4; A1 1/2 × 1/4 = 1/8.
  2. (b) 50 white-eyed vestigial; 25 of them female
    B1 400 × 1/8 = 50; B1 half are XʷXʷ females = 25.
  3. (c) Sons receive the Y chromosome from their father (and their X from the mother).
    B1.
Q12Control of gene expression · Core · Paper 4 style · 6 marks
  1. (a) The lac operon of Escherichia coli contains a promoter, an operator and three structural genes. State what is meant by a structural gene and a regulatory gene. [2]
  2. (b) Describe how the lac operon is kept switched off when lactose is absent. [3]
  3. (c) Name the enzyme encoded by lacZ. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Structural gene: codes for a protein (e.g. an enzyme) that has a function in the cell other than controlling other genes. Regulatory gene: codes for a protein (e.g. a repressor or transcription factor) that controls the expression of other genes.
    B1 each.
  2. (b) The regulatory gene (lacI) is transcribed and translated to make the repressor protein; the repressor binds to the operator; this prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter/moving along, so the structural genes are not transcribed.
    B1 repressor made by regulatory gene; B1 binds operator; B1 RNA polymerase blocked, no transcription of structural genes.
  3. (c) β-galactosidase
    B1.
Q13Control of gene expression · Core · Paper 4 style · 4 marks
  1. (a) Explain what is meant by a transcription factor in a eukaryotic cell. [2]
  2. (b) Suggest why different cell types in the same plant, such as guard cells and root hair cells, make different proteins although they contain the same genes. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) A protein that binds to DNA (at a specific base sequence, e.g. a promoter) and controls whether a gene is transcribed; by increasing or decreasing the binding of RNA polymerase.
    B1 protein binding to DNA/promoter; B1 switches transcription on or off/helps or blocks RNA polymerase.
  2. (b) Different transcription factors are active in different cell types, so different genes are switched on (transcribed) and others are switched off.
    B1 same genes but different genes expressed; B1 due to different transcription factors (or signals) in each cell type.
Q14Control of gene expression · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

Mutant strains of E. coli were grown in a medium with no lactose and then in a medium with lactose. The amount of β-galactosidase was measured.

  1. (a) Strain 1 has a mutation in the regulatory gene so that the repressor protein cannot bind to the operator. Predict and explain the amount of β-galactosidase made in each medium. [3]
  2. (b) Strain 2 has a mutation in the regulatory gene so that the repressor still binds to the operator but cannot bind lactose (allolactose). Predict and explain the amount of β-galactosidase made in each medium. [3]
Show answer
  1. (a) Large amount in both media (made all the time/constitutive); the repressor cannot bind the operator, so RNA polymerase can always bind to the promoter and transcribe lacZ, even without lactose.
    B1 high in both; B1 repressor cannot block operator; B1 RNA polymerase transcribes structural genes continuously.
  2. (b) Little or none in both media; normally lactose binds the repressor and changes its shape so it leaves the operator; this repressor cannot bind lactose, so it stays on the operator and the genes are never transcribed.
    B1 none/very low in both; B1 lactose normally changes repressor shape; B1 repressor stays bound, no transcription.
Q15Control of gene expression · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

When a barley grain absorbs water, the embryo releases gibberellin (GA). GA causes cells of the aleurone layer to make amylase, which hydrolyses starch in the endosperm.

  1. (a) Outline how gibberellin causes the gene for amylase to be transcribed in an aleurone cell. [4]
  2. (b) Explain why the production of amylase is important for germination. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) GA binds to a receptor protein (GID1) in the cell; the GA–receptor complex binds to DELLA proteins; this causes DELLA to be broken down (ubiquitination and destruction by proteasomes); DELLA normally binds to and inhibits a transcription factor (PIF); the freed transcription factor binds to the promoter of the amylase gene and RNA polymerase transcribes it.
    1 mark each for any four of the points.
  2. (b) Amylase hydrolyses starch to maltose/glucose; the sugars are respired by the embryo to release energy (ATP) for growth, and used to build new cells (cellulose).
    B1 starch → maltose/glucose; B1 for respiration/growth of embryo.
Q16Control of gene expression · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

A bacterium makes the amino acid tryptophan using five enzymes coded by genes in one operon. When tryptophan was added to the growth medium, the concentration of these enzymes fell to almost zero within 20 minutes.

  1. (a) State whether the tryptophan-synthesising enzymes are repressible or inducible, and explain your answer. [2]
  2. (b) Suggest how tryptophan could switch off transcription of this operon. [2]
  3. (c) Explain the advantage to the bacterium of controlling these genes in this way. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) Repressible; their synthesis is switched off (repressed) when the end product, tryptophan, is present.
    B1 repressible; B1 reason.
  2. (b) Tryptophan binds to an (inactive) repressor protein, changing its shape so it can bind to the operator; this blocks RNA polymerase so the genes are not transcribed.
    B1 tryptophan binds repressor and activates it; B1 repressor binds operator, blocks transcription.
  3. (c) The bacterium does not waste energy, ATP and amino acids making enzymes (and tryptophan) when tryptophan is already available.
    B1 saves energy/resources; B1 only made when needed.
Q17Control of gene expression · Standard · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

In eukaryotes, genes are not organised into operons. Each gene has its own promoter, and transcription starts only when the correct transcription factors and RNA polymerase have bound.

  1. (a) Explain why the three structural genes of the lac operon are always transcribed together, while three genes coding for enzymes of one pathway in a eukaryote may be switched on separately. [2]
  2. (b) A mutation changes the base sequence of the promoter of a eukaryotic gene so that a transcription factor that activates the gene can no longer bind. Suggest the effect on the cell. [2]
  3. (c) State one way in which a transcription factor may be activated in response to a signal reaching a cell. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) In the lac operon the three genes share one promoter and operator and are transcribed as one mRNA; in eukaryotes each gene has its own promoter, so each can be controlled by its own transcription factors.
    B1 shared promoter/operator, one mRNA; B1 separate promoters/separate transcription factors in eukaryotes.
  2. (b) RNA polymerase does not bind/transcription is not started, so no (or little) mRNA and protein is made from that gene; the cell lacks the protein, e.g. an enzyme, so its function is lost.
    B1 no transcription/RNA polymerase not recruited; B1 protein not made and consequence.
  3. (c) A hormone/signal binds a receptor, which leads to the transcription factor being changed (e.g. phosphorylated) or released from an inhibitor (as when GA causes DELLA breakdown).
    B1.
Q18Control of gene expression · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 7 marks

A culture of E. coli growing without lactose was transferred at time 0 to a medium containing lactose and no glucose. β-galactosidase activity (arbitrary units): 0 min – 2; 2 min – 2; 5 min – 15; 10 min – 50; 20 min – 120; 30 min – 190.

  1. (a) Calculate the mean rate of increase in β-galactosidase activity between 10 and 20 minutes, in arbitrary units per minute. [1]
  2. (b) Explain the increase in β-galactosidase activity after lactose was added. [4]
  3. (c) Suggest why there was no increase in activity in the first two minutes. [1]
  4. (d) Explain why β-galactosidase is described as an inducible enzyme. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) 7 units min⁻¹
    B1 (120 − 50) ÷ 10 = 7.
  2. (b) Lactose (allolactose) enters and binds to the repressor; the repressor changes shape and can no longer bind to the operator; RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and transcribes lacZ, lacY and lacA (one mRNA); mRNA is translated into β-galactosidase (and lactose permease, which lets more lactose in, so activity rises faster).
    1 mark each for any four of: lactose binds repressor; shape change, released from operator; RNA polymerase binds promoter; transcription of structural genes; translation; permease increases uptake.
  3. (c) Time is needed for lactose to enter, for the repressor to be released and for transcription and translation to make new enzyme.
    B1.
  4. (d) It is made only when its substrate (lactose, the inducer) is present.
    B1.
Q19Control of gene expression · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 7 marks
  1. (a) Semi-dwarf wheat varieties grown widely in Pakistan since the 1960s carry mutant alleles of the Rht genes, which code for DELLA proteins. The mutant DELLA proteins are not broken down when gibberellin binds to its receptor. Explain why these plants have short stems even though they make normal amounts of gibberellin. [3]
  2. (b) In peas, tall plants have the dominant allele Le, which codes for an enzyme that converts an inactive gibberellin into active GA₁. The recessive allele le has a single base substitution. Suggest why lele plants are short. [3]
  3. (c) Suggest one advantage to farmers of growing semi-dwarf wheat. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) The mutant DELLA is not degraded, so it remains bound to the transcription factors (PIFs); genes that promote stem elongation/cell division are not transcribed; so stems grow less in response to GA (GA-insensitive).
    B1 DELLA not degraded; B1 continues to inhibit transcription factors; B1 growth genes not transcribed/GA has no effect.
  2. (b) The substitution changes one amino acid in the enzyme; the enzyme's tertiary structure/active site is altered so it has (much) lower activity; less active GA₁ is made, so DELLA proteins are not broken down and stem elongation is reduced.
    B1 amino acid changed; B1 enzyme less active/active site shape changed; B1 less GA₁, DELLA remains, less elongation.
  3. (c) Short, strong stems are less likely to fall over (lodge) in wind/rain when carrying heavy heads of grain; more energy goes into grain, increasing yield.
    B1.
Q20Meiosis & genetic variation · Core · Paper 4 style · 6 marks
  1. (a) Explain what is meant by a homologous pair of chromosomes. [2]
  2. (b) State the stage of meiosis in which (i) crossing over occurs and (ii) homologous chromosomes are separated. [2]
  3. (c) State two ways in which the cells produced by meiosis differ from those produced by mitosis. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) Two chromosomes, one from each parent (maternal and paternal), that have the same genes at the same loci and are the same size and shape (centromere position); they may carry different alleles.
    B1 same genes at same loci; B1 one maternal and one paternal (may have different alleles).
  2. (b) (i) prophase I; (ii) anaphase I
    B1 each.
  3. (c) Meiosis gives haploid cells (half the chromosome number); four cells rather than two; cells genetically different from each other and from the parent cell.
    1 mark each for any two.
Q21Meiosis & genetic variation · Standard · Paper 4 style · 5 marks
  1. (a) Explain how independent assortment in meiosis produces genetic variation among gametes. [2]
  2. (b) A plant species has a diploid number of 14. Calculate the number of genetically different gametes one plant could produce by independent assortment alone. [1]
  3. (c) Calculate the number of different chromosome combinations possible in a zygote produced from two plants of this species, by independent assortment and random fertilisation (ignore crossing over). [1]
  4. (d) Explain why the real number of genetically different gametes is far larger than your answer to (b). [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) At metaphase I each homologous pair lines up on the equator independently/randomly of other pairs; so the maternal and paternal chromosomes are shuffled into different combinations in each gamete.
    B1 random orientation of homologous pairs at metaphase I; B1 different combinations of maternal/paternal chromosomes.
  2. (b) 128
    B1 2⁷ = 128.
  3. (c) 16 384
    B1 128 × 128 = 16 384.
  4. (d) Crossing over in prophase I exchanges sections between non-sister chromatids, producing new combinations of alleles on each chromosome.
    B1.
Q22Meiosis & genetic variation · Standard · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

A student examined squashed anther cells of an onion (2n = 16) undergoing meiosis. Cell P: pairs of homologous chromosomes (bivalents) lined up across the middle of the cell. Cell Q: two groups of chromosomes, each made of two chromatids, moving to opposite poles. Cell R: four groups of single chromatids, in two cells, being pulled to the poles.

  1. (a) Identify the stage of meiosis shown in each cell. [3]
  2. (b) State the number of chromosomes that will be present in each nucleus at the end of meiosis. [1]
  3. (c) Explain why the separation of chromatids in meiosis II also contributes to genetic variation. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) P metaphase I; Q anaphase I; R anaphase II
    B1 each.
  2. (b) 8
    B1 n = 16 ÷ 2 = 8.
  3. (c) Because of crossing over, the sister chromatids of a chromosome are no longer identical; independent assortment of chromatids at metaphase II produces further new combinations in the four cells.
    B1 chromatids not identical after crossing over; B1 random arrangement at metaphase II.
Q23Meiosis & genetic variation · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

The mass of DNA in a nucleus of a cell from the testis of a mammal was measured during one meiotic division. Mass in arbitrary units: before the S phase (G1) – 20; end of interphase – 40; after telophase I – 20; after telophase II – 10.

  1. (a) Explain the changes in mass of DNA shown by these data. [4]
  2. (b) A sperm cell fertilises an egg. State the DNA mass, in arbitrary units, of the zygote nucleus before it replicates, and explain the significance of this for the species. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) 20 → 40: DNA replicates in S phase of interphase, each chromosome now two chromatids; 40 → 20: at the end of meiosis I homologous chromosomes separate into two nuclei, so each nucleus gets half the DNA (still two chromatids per chromosome); 20 → 10: in meiosis II sister chromatids separate, giving haploid nuclei with half the DNA of the original G1 cell.
    B1 replication in S phase; B1 homologues separate in meiosis I; B1 chromatids separate in meiosis II; B1 final nuclei haploid with half the original DNA.
  2. (b) 20; the diploid chromosome number (and DNA content) is restored at fertilisation, so it stays constant from generation to generation.
    B1 20; B1 diploid number restored/maintained between generations.
Q24Meiosis & genetic variation · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 6 marks
  1. (a) Describe how meiosis and fertilisation together produce genetic variation in the offspring of sexually reproducing organisms. [6]
Show answer
  1. (a) Points: in prophase I homologous chromosomes pair (bivalents); non-sister chromatids form chiasmata and exchange sections (crossing over); this produces new combinations of alleles on chromatids; at metaphase I homologous pairs line up randomly/independent assortment; giving 2ⁿ combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes; at metaphase II chromatids (no longer identical) assort independently; random fertilisation – any male gamete can fuse with any female gamete; mating between unrelated individuals combines different alleles; gametes haploid so zygote combines alleles from two parents.
    1 mark each for any six points; max 4 if fertilisation is not mentioned.
Q25Chi-squared test · Standard · Paper 4 style · 5 marks

A dihybrid cross between two plants heterozygous for flower colour and leaf shape was expected to give a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio. Observed offspring: 93, 29, 31 and 7 (total 160).χ² = Σ (O − E)² ÷ E. Critical values at p = 0.05: 1 df – 3.84; 2 df – 5.99; 3 df – 7.82.

  1. (a) Calculate the expected numbers for each class. [1]
  2. (b) Calculate the value of χ². Give your answer to 2 decimal places. [2]
  3. (c) State the number of degrees of freedom and explain what the result shows. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) 90, 30, 30, 10
    B1 all four.
  2. (b) 1.07
    M1 0.100 + 0.033 + 0.033 + 0.900; A1 1.07.
  3. (c) 3 degrees of freedom (4 classes − 1); 1.07 < 7.82, so the difference between observed and expected is not significant (p > 0.05); it is due to chance, and the results fit a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio.
    B1 3 df; B1 not significant, accept null/fits ratio.
Q26Chi-squared test · Challenge · Paper 4 style · 6 marks

A breeder in Karachi mated BbEe Labrador dogs (B black, b chocolate; ee dogs are yellow whatever their B/b alleles) and recorded 160 puppies over several years: 98 black, 22 chocolate, 40 yellow. The expected ratio is 9 black : 3 chocolate : 4 yellow.χ² = Σ (O − E)² ÷ E. Critical values at p = 0.05: 1 df – 3.84; 2 df – 5.99; 3 df – 7.82.

  1. (a) State the null hypothesis. [1]
  2. (b) Calculate χ². Give your answer to 2 decimal places. [3]
  3. (c) State a conclusion, using the critical values. [2]
Show answer
  1. (a) There is no significant difference between the observed numbers and the numbers expected from a 9 : 3 : 4 ratio (any difference is due to chance).
    B1.
  2. (b) 2.84
    B1 expected 90, 30, 40; M1 0.711 + 2.133 + 0; A1 2.84.
  3. (c) 2 degrees of freedom; 2.84 < 5.99, so accept the null hypothesis: the difference is not significant and the results are consistent with recessive epistasis (9 : 3 : 4).
    B1 2 df and comparison; B1 not significant/consistent with 9 : 3 : 4.
Q27Skill: planning a method · Challenge · Paper 5 style · 7 marks

A geneticist has two true-breeding stocks of Drosophila: one with normal (red) eyes and one with a new mutant eye colour, 'sepia-like'. She wants to find out whether the mutant allele is recessive, and whether the gene is on the X chromosome or on an autosome.

  1. (a) Describe how she could carry out breeding experiments to answer these questions. Include the crosses, how the flies are handled, and the results she would expect for each possibility. [7]
Show answer
  1. (a) Points: collect virgin females (isolate within about 8 h of emerging) so the female parents have not mated; reciprocal crosses – mutant female × normal male and normal female × mutant male; anaesthetise flies (e.g. CO₂) to sex and score them; keep cultures at a constant temperature (e.g. 25 °C) on the same medium; remove parents before offspring emerge; if all F1 in both crosses are normal, mutant is recessive; if reciprocal crosses give the same results (all F1 normal), gene is autosomal; if mutant female × normal male gives normal females but all mutant males, the gene is X-linked; interbreed F1 to get F2 and score phenotypes by sex – autosomal recessive gives 3 : 1 in both sexes; use large numbers and test fit with χ².
    1 mark each for any seven points; must include reciprocal crosses and the expected results for at least one possibility for full marks.
Q28Skill: statistics (SD, SE, CI, t-test, Spearman, chi-squared) · Standard · Paper 5 style · 5 marks

A student counted the kernels on one ear of maize produced by a test cross between a plant heterozygous for purple kernels (Pp) and a plant with yellow kernels (pp). There were 212 purple and 188 yellow kernels.χ² = Σ (O − E)² ÷ E. Critical value at p = 0.05 for 1 df is 3.84.

  1. (a) Explain why a χ² test, not a t-test, is the appropriate statistical test for these data. [2]
  2. (b) Calculate χ² and state a conclusion. [3]
Show answer
  1. (a) The data are counts in categories (frequencies of discrete phenotypes), compared with expected numbers from a predicted ratio; a t-test compares the means of two sets of continuous measurements.
    B1 categorical counts/observed vs expected; B1 t-test is for comparing means of continuous data.
  2. (b) χ² = 1.44; 1.44 < 3.84 (1 df), so the difference from 1 : 1 is not significant/due to chance; results fit the expected 1 : 1 ratio.
    B1 expected 200 each; B1 χ² = 1.44; B1 conclusion with 3.84.
Q29Skill: hypotheses & predictions · Core · Paper 5 style · 3 marks

A plant breeder thinks that seed coat colour in a variety of chickpea is controlled by one gene, with black seed coat dominant to cream. She crosses two plants that are both heterozygous.

  1. (a) State the prediction she would make about the offspring if her hypothesis is correct. [1]
  2. (b) State a null hypothesis for a χ² test on her results. [1]
  3. (c) Suggest why she should grow a large number of offspring. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) 3 black : 1 cream (three-quarters black).
    B1.
  2. (b) There is no significant difference between the observed numbers of black and cream offspring and the numbers expected from a 3 : 1 ratio.
    B1.
  3. (c) Ratios are probabilities; with large numbers, chance effects of random fertilisation are smaller and the test is more reliable.
    B1.
Q30Skill: risk assessment · Core · Paper 5 style · 5 marks

Students will grow a non-pathogenic laboratory strain of E. coli on agar plates with and without lactose, and test for β-galactosidase activity using a colourless substrate that turns yellow when hydrolysed.

  1. (a) Identify two hazards in this investigation and describe a precaution for each. [4]
  2. (b) Explain why plates are incubated at about 25 °C rather than 37 °C in school laboratories. [1]
Show answer
  1. (a) Any two hazards with matched precautions: bacteria could be contaminated with pathogens/cause infection – use aseptic technique, flame loops, tape lids (do not seal fully), do not open plates after incubation, incubate at 25–30 °C not 37 °C; cultures spilt – disinfect bench before and after with disinfectant; disposal – autoclave cultures before disposal; Bunsen burner/hot loop – burns, tie hair back; chemical substrate/irritant – wear gloves and eye protection.
    B1 each hazard; B1 each matching precaution.
  2. (b) 37 °C (body temperature) favours growth of human pathogens that may have contaminated the plates.
    B1.

Similar questions

Questions that test the same subtopic in different years, grouped so you can work on one skill at a time.

References only: find each question in its paper (official link where available, otherwise through your school).

Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) Banker31 questions · 9/9 sessions
Control of gene expression Banker30 questions · 8/9 sessions
Meiosis & genetic variation 16 questions · 7/9 sessions
Chi-squared test 4 questions · 3/9 sessions

Subtopics

Our analysis of how often each subtopic was examined and how many marks it carried, 2022 to May/June 2026.

SubtopicMarks indexedSessions
Genetic crosses (mono/dihybrid, sex linkage, codominance, epistasis) Banker2069/9
Control of gene expression Banker1438/9
Meiosis & genetic variation 837/9
Chi-squared test 123/9
Skill: planning a method Rare71/9
Skill: statistics (SD, SE, CI, t-test, Spearman, chi-squared) Rare31/9
Skill: hypotheses & predictions Rare21/9
Skill: risk assessment Rare11/9

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